Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 09:56
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What is the sluttiest thing your wife has ever done?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Can you name a female actress who has had bad timing or luck in her film career?
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What is the worst emotional pain you ever felt as an adult?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.